AIIMS November 2018 Pharmacology Solution

Solution to the pharmacology questions asked in AIIMS November 2018 exam by Dr. Ranjan Kumar Patel 1. Dose reduction is required in renal failure with all except a. Amphotericin B b. Vancomycin c. Doxycycline d. Gentamicin Ans is ‘c’, Doxycycline 2. Side effects of salbutamol are all except a. Hypokalemia b. Hypoglycemia c. Tremor d. Tachycardia Ans is ‘b’, Hypoglycemia 3. Loading dose depends on a. Volume of distribution b. Bioavailability c. Half-life d. Clearance Ans is ‘a’, Volume of distribution 4. Low apparent volume of distribution indicates a. Drug is not extensively distributed in organs and tissues b. Low bioavailability c. Low T 1/2 d. Very low efficacy Ans is ‘a’, Drug is not extensively distributed in organs and tissues 5. Pediatrician attended infant with unconjugated serum bilirubin level of 33mg/dL. Which drug mother might have taken in 3rd trimester a. Azithromycin b. Chloroquine c. Ampicillin d. Cotrimoxazole Ans is d, Cotrimoxazole 6. For a patient of hypertension on metoprolol, verapamil was given; this will result in a. Atrial fibrillation b. Bradycardia with AV block c. Torsades de pointes d. Tachycardia Ans is ‘b’, Bradycardia with AV block 7. Mechanism by which Ach decreases heart rate is by a. Delayed diastolic depolarization b. Increase in plateau c. Decrease preload d. Increase afterload Ans is ‘a’, Delayed diastolic depolarization 8. Diamox is given for glaucoma, which is a noncompetitive antagonist of carbonic anhydrase. The effect is a. Increase in Km and Vmax b. Decrease in Km c. Decrease in Vmax d. No change in Vmax Ans is ‘c’, Decrease in Vmax 9. Which is gametocidal for all species a. Quinine b. Chloroquine c. Primaquine d. None Ans is ‘c’, Primaquine 10. A Male with insulin dependent diabetes having macular edema develops glaucoma. Which drug should be used as the least resort to treat. a. Alpha agonist b. Prostaglandin analogue c. Pilocarpine d. Beta blocker Ans is ‘b’, Prostaglandin analogue 11. Lithium use in pregnancy leads to which effect on baby? a. CVS defect b. Urogenital defect c. Neural tube defect d. Facial defects Ans is ‘a’, CVS defect 12. If carbamazepine is added to valproate, which of the following side-effect increases? a. Thrombocytopenia b. Hepatotoxicity c. Hyperammonemia d. Pancreatitis Ans is ‘b’, Hepatotoxicity 13. Which of the following drug is used to prevent acute mountain sickness a. Acetazolamide b. Dexamethasone c. Diltiazem d. Digoxin Ans is ‘a’, Acetazolamide 14. A known case of TB is now resistant to Rifampicin and Isoniazid. Which of the following would be most appropriate in treating this patient? A. 6 drugs for 4months; 4 drugs for 12 months B. 6 drugs for 6 months; 4 drugs for 18 months C. 4 drugs for 4 months, 6 drugs for 12 months D. 5 drugs 2 months; 4 drug 1 month; 3 drug 5 months Ans is ‘b’, B. 6 drugs for 6 months; 4 drugs for 18 months 15. Schedule of drug to be sold only on prescription is a. H b. P c. G d. X Ans is ‘a’, H 16. In a rheumatic heart disease pregnant female with prosthetic valve, when should we switch to heparin a. 32 weeks b. 36 weeks c. 37 weeks d. 40 weeks Ans is ‘c’, 37 weeks 17. Phase I trial is done to test a. Safety b. Efficacy c. Dose d. Pharmacokinetics Ans is ‘d’, Pharmacokinetics 18. Nitroprusside active metabolite act by a. Phosphokinase 1,2 b. Guanylyl cyclase c. Phospholipase A d. Phospholipase B Ans is ‘b’, Guanylyl cyclase 19. Dapsone is used as antibacterial, antifungal and as an immunomodulator. what is the mechanism behind all these actions? a. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis b. Inhibition of sterol of the cell wall c. Inhibition of protein synthesis in ribosomes d. Competes with PABA in folic acid synthesis Ans is ‘d’, Competes with PABA in folic acid synthesis 20. The kit in the picture is used for treatment of 21. Morphine should not be given in a patient with: a. Ischemic pain b. Cancer pain c. Biliary colic d. Postoperative pain Ans is ‘c’, Biliary colic 22. A patient is on indinavir, zidovudine, lamivudine and ketoconazole. He developed breast hypertrophy, nephrolithiasis, hyperlipidemia and central obesity; identify the drug causing these side effects amongst all: a. Lamivudine b. Indinavir c. Ketoconazole d. Zidovudine Ans is ‘b’, Indinavir 23. Which of the following is correct regarding T3 and T4 acting on TRH? a. It activates Phospholipase A b. It acts on transcription factor c. It acts by increasing cAMP d. It is a tyrosine kinase receptor Ans is ‘b’, It acts on transcription factor 24. A 16 year old girl was on antiepileptic for treatment of seizure episodes while asleep. She had no seizure for 6 months and NCCT and EEG was normal. What is further management? a. Stop treatment b. Continue for 2 years c. Life long treatment d. Stop treatment and follow up with 6 monthly EEG Ans is ‘c’, Life long treatment